Endeavor General Subjects Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• What is the importance of being on Vref at 50 feet during landing?
• Flex takeoff is permissible when anti-ice fluid type 1 or IV is present on what part of the aircraft?
• What must pilots verify if there was a previously deferred discrepancy?
• What speed is targeted during the fourth segment of climb?
• What is the altitude range for RVSM airspace?
• When should the SWOA flow chart be used?
• What does the clean aircraft concept prohibit during takeoff?
• How long do crew members have to report incidents?
• How far can HALON extinguishers shoot?
• Which of the following is NOT a valid condition for performing a go-around?
• How much margin does 60% of the runway provide according to the text?
• Who is required to communicate inside the aircraft during an emergency?
• Which of the following is NOT a designated lighting setup for taxiing?
• Chlorine, Hydrogen, Methane, Oxygen, and Propane are examples of which class of gases?
• What should be confirmed before ignoring an EGPWS terrain warning?
• Under what condition should Type IV Anti-ICE Fluid be utilized?
• What is required to log multiple flight legs on a single MM01 page?
• What type of extinguisher is suitable for a Class C fire?
• How many oxygen masks are available in the flight deck of a CRJ900?
• Fires require which three elements to burn?
• What is the consequence of using enter in error on a discrepancy?
• What is Max Thrust defined as?
• What is the minimum visibility required for taxiing in certain conditions according to aviation regulations?
• What are Method 1 and Method 2 used for in aviation?
• Which condition requires a missed approach during an approach?
• What factor does the factored landing distance take into account?
• If a discrepancy on MM01 is deferred, what must be checked?
• During which segment of climb do you accelerate to V2?
• What does OCC stand for in the context of aviation?
• What team is responsible for verifying that post deice checks have been completed?
• What are the requirements for a LAHSO clearance at night?
• What is the role of ATC during an emergency?
• During a long range climb, what is the transition speed after 10,000 feet?
• Which of the following statements about visual approaches is true regarding unstable approaches?
• Which of the following is required equipment for RVSM airspace?
• What is the maximum crosswind component for takeoff on a wet runway?
• Which of the following is true regarding night rest?
• What can cause shock in a person?
• What are the training requirements for handling dangerous goods?
• What is the recommended separation when departing behind a heavy aircraft?
• What is a key feature of the mature stage of a thunderstorm?
• When must the wing anti-ice system be turned on?
• What is considered physiological night rest time?
• Which of the following items is NOT part of the expected paperwork at the gate?
• Where is the water fire extinguisher located in the aircraft?
• When must blazers be worn by pilots?
• Below what altitude must you decline a LAHSO clearance?
• What is the emergency fuel threshold for the CRJ900?
• What is the formula for calculating the factored number based on ALD?
• What weight calculation excludes taxi fuel from the ramp weight?
• What action is required if holdover time has been exceeded?
• What must be checked regarding braking action reports before landings at an airport?
• What ground equipment is required for CAT II operations?
• In aviation, a SWOA is only effective if the runway is what?
• What is indicated by all lights being on while crossing a runway?
• If a discrepancy is noted prior to takeoff, what must you do?
• What is the minimum visibility required if the runway is equipped with PAPI/VASI?
• Where are deferred items listed in aircraft maintenance?
• What must be in sight for an accepted visual approach?
• What is a sign that the frost on an aircraft may be permissible?
• Where should fault reset procedures be performed?
• What lighting configuration indicates that aircraft engines are running?
• How long does the oxygen in a personal breathing equipment (PBE) last?
• Which of these elements does not support combustion?
• How quickly must thrust reversers deploy and stow?
• What is the airspeed to not drop below while climbing above FL330?
• When must crew members be at their gate of departure?
• How far should passengers be away from an aircraft if evacuated due to explosives?
• Under what condition should Flex Thrust not be used?
• What does Method 1 refer to?
• What is the maximum crosswind component allowed for a contaminated runway?
• What authority does the pilot in command (PIC) have in the case of engine failure?
• What is the minimum starting temperature for the APU?
• What must flight attendants do if an AED is used?
• How early should crew members report for duty at their domicile?
• What weight is the maximum take-off weight for an aircraft?
• What is the activity during the third segment of climb?
• What is the turbulence penetration speed?
• What is the maximum ramp/taxi weight for an aircraft according to the provided information?
• What is the primary factor that fatigue can impair?
• What type of materials does a Class D fire involve?
• How often must a pilot attend CQ ground sessions?
• What is the implication of a score of 1 on the RCAM Chart?
• What is the maximum crosswind limit for a CAT II approach?
• What factors can increase the effectiveness of deice fluid?
• What is the maximum landing weight based on the definitions provided?
• What is one of the required components of a ground-based CAT II navigation system?
• When does holdover time begin?
• How long is a release valid for at the originating station?
• Which condition is NOT a contributing factor to fatigue according to ICAO?
• Low pressure moves in which directions?
• To which class do aluminum, fireworks, dynamite, and nitroglycerin belong?
• What is the minimum airspeed for company holding at altitudes below 15,000 feet?
• If an error is entered, what is the proper way to correct it?
• What action should flight attendants take if the captain does not say "Please stand by" within 30 seconds of an emergency landing?
• What happens when a shockwave forms?
• What is the maximum allowable airspeed in Canada below 10,000 feet?
• What must be identifiable for radar use if the inner marker is not available during approach?
• What timing is recommended for crew to be ready for their departure at an overnight station?
• What is included in Endeavor's CRJ Aircraft Flight Manual (AFM)?
• How much do children aged 2-12 years weigh from November 1 to April 30?
• What is defined as 'block time' in aviation?
• What temperature defines a cold soaked wing?
• What does a red-level emergency signify for cabin crew preparation?
• How does airflow at the airfoil surface influence lift during compressibility effects?
• Which of the following is true about a yellow-level emergency?
• What does a flashing Final Approach Occupancy Signal (FAROS) indicate?
• What is the maximum number of flight hours allowed in 672 Flight Hours?
• Which situation does NOT trigger a missed approach requirement?
• What is the maximum allowable temperature for takeoff?
• How far can a course deviation be for holding?
• What is the basic operating weight of an aircraft?
• What is the minimum fuel requirement for the CRJ900?
• What types of materials are classified as Class A fire hazards?
• What does compressibility aid in, according to the effects on lift?
• Which of the following substances is NOT a flammable liquid?
• What is the direction of air flow in a cyclonic system?
• How many hours of sleep are required within the minimum rest time?
• What is the maximum number of flight duty hours one may work in 168 hours?
• What is the minimum runway length required for accepting land and hold short instructions?
• What must be maintained to remain in accordance with regulatory standards during a visual approach?
• What is the purpose of the RVR Reporting System in CAT II operations?
• Which of the following is an accepted substitute for the Outer Marker position identification?
• What is the maximum landing weight allowed for an aircraft?
• Which of the following is not a component of CAT II required ground equipment?
• What is the definition of a cold soaked aircraft?
• What is the transition airspeed for the alternative climb schedule after 10,000 feet?
• What is the main goal of using Flex thrust?
• What is defined as an event that interrupts normal flight operations?
• When is a runway classified as wet?
• What is the minimum temperature for takeoff?
• What hours does the circadian low window encompass?
• What is a requirement for terrain clearance during method 1?
• How much can flight time limitations be exceeded after takeoff?
• What is required for a stabilized approach at 1,000 feet in landing configuration?
• In a yellow-level emergency, what action is not required?
• Who can authorize the use of the expanded medical kit (EMK)?
• What is the flap retraction altitude in normal conditions?
• Which fire class concerns energized electrical equipment?
• What is the minimum vertical separation required for precision runway monitoring during parallel approaches?
• What should be maintained at 500 feet during descent?
• Who is responsible for initiating an evacuation in case of an emergency?
• For exemption 17302, what is the minimum experience requirement for the First Officer?
• When must the old logbook remain with the aircraft?
• The duty period for pilots is based on which specific type of time?
• What is the maximum approved runway slope for takeoff and landing?
• Where is personal breathing equipment (PBE) located?
• Which of the following is NOT a requirement for SWOA airport limitations?
• What is the recommended procedure if you encounter the negative effects of compressibility?
• When is a visual inspection of an aircraft required by customs?
• What does NOTAC stand for?
• In the context of aircraft performance, what represents a typical standard descent speed?
• What is necessary for block time to be accurately recorded?
• Which of the following statements about the maximum x-wind component for a contaminated runway is true?
• Flight time extensions of less than how many minutes are considered unlimited?
• What is a possible cause of trauma leading to shock?
• Which of the following must be part of the pre-takeoff check?
• Is it allowed to carry dangerous goods in your luggage when flying?
• Which factor will decrease the critical Mach number of an aircraft?
• What does RAIM stand for in aviation?
• What is the primary role of the Operational Control Center (OCC)?
• Which weight category includes both payload and fuel to define the maximum weight of the aircraft?
• What does RCAM stand for in aviation?
• What are the weather requirements for LAHSO instructions to be accepted?
• When is the emergency flashlight LED designed to flash once every 5 seconds?
• What are Short Fuse Watch Items?
• When must you request new data based on OAT?
• What does M1METW refer to in aviation?
• What information must be reported to Dispatch when reporting a maintenance discrepancy?
• What are the CAT II lowest minimums for runway operations?
• How many crew members are needed for communication during an emergency?
• Which factor does NOT contribute to an unstable approach?
• What is expected from a pilot during the stabilized approach phase?
• What item must be checked during the pre-takeoff contamination check?
• Which of the following lighting systems is required for CAT II operations?
• What is the recommended limitation for shifting time zones?
• What is the required airspeed at which to transition in a long range climb once you reach FL330?
• What does the maximum zero fuel weight refer to?
• What altitude provides a vertical separation allowance in RVSM airspace?
• For what purpose is the term "MRTW" used?
• How often must a Pilot in Command (PIC) undergo a line check?
• What are Q routes in aviation?
• What is a symptom of shock?
• What is the maximum amount of dry ice allowed in a cargo compartment?
• Which of the following describes the scenario of using a 2,000' obstruction clearance?
• How long is the typical separation distance behind a heavy aircraft?
• What does distress indicate in an emergency context?
• How many segments are there in the climb phase of flight?
• What is associated with rapid decompression?
• What is the minimum airspeed for company holding when at an altitude of 15,000 feet and above?
• What is the maximum volume of dry ice allowed per package?
• When do SMGCS regulations go into effect?
• During what stage is a thunderstorm considered most dangerous?
• What is the effect of an increase in performance on V1?
• For TDZ RVR to be effective, what equipment must be present?
• What is indicated by a 1/2" dot of paint on a dent or scratch?
• What should be monitored regarding the aircraft skin temperature for deicing to be effective?
• Which materials are included in Class 4 flammable solids?
• Stop bar and lead-in lights are required when the RVR is less than what?
• What does the NASR emergency acronym stand for?
• How far should you maintain lateral clearance from the track during drift down?
• When should a pre-takeoff check be performed?
• What class includes sodium, cobalt powder, and potassium as examples?
• When are breakouts during parallel approaches required to be hand flown?
• What defines an oversized item in the context of aircraft cabin carry-on regulations?
• What is required for a controlling RVR of 1200 RVR?
• What weight is used for adults from May 1 to October 31?
• How does increased temperature affect V1?
• Which design feature is NOT a way that aircraft manufacturers address the effects of compressibility?
• Define subsonic flight.
• What is the minimum amount of runway required to accept a LAHSO clearance?
• What is the designation for a runway that is 25% or more covered by moisture?
• Are labels required on packages containing dangerous goods?
• What is the minimum speed for the CRJ900 at FL330?
• What is one possible effect of compressibility and shockwave formation on an airplane?
• Under what conditions can an EGPWS terrain warning be ignored?
• What should be done to mitigate potential wind shear on takeoff?
• What degree of GPS VNAV smoothing tolerances is acceptable?
• What is the captain responsible for during DE/ANTI Icing?
• Which speed is classified as standard cruise speed?
• How much fuel must a flight have to reach its destination?
• Under what condition is a runway considered dry?
• Which items are restricted on a TLR?
• Can COMAT containing dangerous goods be transported on Endeavor flights?
• What is the first segment of climb defined from?
• What must be done with all accidents or incidents according to the guidelines?
• What is the maximum crosswind component allowed on a runway with fair braking conditions?
• What characterizes a condition of urgency?
• Which conditions must be met regarding descent for SWOA approaches?
• Which surfaces are explicitly mentioned as requiring a clean aircraft concept for safe takeoff?
• What is one contributor to runway excursions?
• What does Endeavor do regarding battery-powered wheelchairs?
• If a runway surface is contaminated, what must be ensured about the approach equipment?
• When will MEDIEVAC be listed on a release?
• What needs to be checked to ensure a legal alternate?
• What type of weather reports are minimally required for departure or destination airports?
• What is the required condition for cowl anti-ice to be activated on the ground?
• When do all the yellow pages of a MM01 get removed?
• What does a score of 0 represent in the RCAM Chart?
• What is the correct method for documenting discrepancies?
• What type of pressure is associated with cyclonic systems?
• What is a requirement for cold soaked engines?
• What must be considered for the landing distance to be accurate?
• Where is a complex special listed?
• Where may prisoners not be seated on an aircraft?
• In case of ditching, which exit should be used?
• If the aircraft is in a holding pattern, what should always be monitored?
• What do holdover times provide in terms of deice fluid?
• What does the term “non-transgressions zone” refer to in precision monitoring?
• Which of the following liquids falls into the category of flammable and combustible liquids?
• ATC may only issue crossing instructions for one runway at a time unless what is true?
• What does the acronym PAN-PAN indicate?
• What is mandatory if there is a simple special engine failure before 1,000'?
• What are the seating limitations for prisoners on an aircraft?
• What does MM02 refer to in maintenance procedures?
• What is the response for a Level 4 threat on an aircraft?
• Which type of fire extinguisher is appropriate for use on electrical fires?
• How should an aircraft descend when transitioning from 0.70 IMN?
• What is the phenomenon called that describes rolling oscillations caused by aircraft yaw?
• Under which condition is a missed approach required?
• Which organization produced rules for transporting dangerous goods?
• During an emergency, what is one of the crew members' essential duties?
• What is the term used for the speed at which a shockwave forms on an aircraft?
• Which condition results in a factored landing distance of one additional mile?
• How long should an aircraft never stay on a runway?
• What percentage of runway coverage is considered contaminated?
• Enhanced centerlines start a certain distance prior to the hold short line. What is that distance?
• During flight operations, what action is required if both pilots find discrepancies in MM01?
• What types of fire extinguishers are specified for the CRJ900?
• What type of extinguisher is recommended for a Class B fire?
• What altitude range allows for route changes of +/- 6,000'?
• When considering maximum takeoff crosswind components, what is the limit on a dry runway?
• Are passengers allowed to use their own oxygen bottles on flights?
• What is the maximum cargo weight for the aft section?
• What defines a flight duty period?
• How does ICAO define fatigue?
• High pressure moves in which direction?
• What does "final taxi" refer to in aviation?
• What can impaired alertness affect in crew members?
• What is the combination to the locked box containing the expanded medical kit (EMK)?
• What is the standard baggage weight limit for regular bags?
• True or False: Runway status lights take priority over ATC instructions.
• What is a required condition for accepting land and hold short instructions on a runway?
• What is the consequence of a cold soaked aircraft?
• What are the potential threat levels on an aircraft?
• Which statement is true regarding Method 1 and Method 2?
• What are dangerous goods defined as?
• What is a common requirement for shipping oxygen tanks?
• According to standard climb schedules, what is the transition airspeed after reaching 10,000 feet?
• What is the minimum flight weight for an aircraft?
• What is rapid decompression?
• What is the maximum takeoff weight specified for an aircraft?
• What can excessive flight time modifications lead to?
• A 90-120 minute nap can restore alertness for how many hours?
• How many infant life vests are onboard?
• Which weight is defined as the maximum weight during taxi?
• What color code represents a Status message in the QRH ICAS Message system?
• What is the maximum tailwind permissible for a CAT II approach?
• Why is the second segment of climb important?
• What must both pilots review prior to flight?
• What effect does a contaminated runway have on V1?
• What does SWOA stand for in aviation terminology?
• What is indicated when 45% of runway excursions touch down?
• What does a PAN-PAN signal indicate?
• How many flight hours may one not exceed in a 365-day period?
• What indicates that a runway is contaminated?
• From May 1 to October 31, what is the designated weight for children?
• What is the standard descent speed for aircraft?
• At what altitude is the standard engine failure turn typically performed?
• When should actual passenger weight be considered for flight planning?
• How should an NEF item be handled?
• What is the primary purpose of a maintenance log?
• Which doors should never be opened if an aircraft is ditched?
• A simple special engine failure requires a turn when?
• What is the maximum crosswind for landing on a dry runway?
• What is the result of cold soaked fuel on the underside of the wing?
• What is the Mach range for supersonic flight?
• Which factor increases V1 during takeoff?
• What characterizes transonic flight?
• What are the weather requirements for accepting a land and hold short instruction?
• How many fire extinguishers are available on the CRJ900 aircraft?
• At what distance from the airport can a flight cancel IFR clearance?
• Within how many miles can crews accept a visual approach in B, C, or D airspace?
• What does Flex thrust primarily aim to achieve?
• How long does it take to put on personal breathing equipment (PBE)?
• What signifies that a newly initiated logbook is properly completed?
• How long does an aircraft lockdown last for Level 1 and Level 2 threats?
• What is the maximum crosswind component allowed on a runway with poor braking conditions?
• What is Mach tuck primarily caused by?
• What does IMN stand for in aviation terms?
• How many flashlights are located on the flight deck?
• When is it advisable to look for a hotspot at an airport?
• If given a NOTOC (notice to aircraft commander), what should you do?
• How long do HALON extinguishers typically last when in use?
• What must be monitored while motoring a cold soaked engine?
• When does “Climb VIA” begin your turn?
• What is the protocol for lights usage while taxiing an aircraft?
• What conditions must be met for Advisory VNAV to be valid?
• What does 'flight time' refer to?
• What is the maximum altitude deviation allowed for route changes above FL310?
• How should an aircraft communicate when arriving at a runway?
• Do all NEF (Non Essential Flight) items require placards?
• When should after-landing checks or flows begin?
• What is the status of a third fault reset attempt?
• What does Level 3 threat entail?
• In a standard climb, what is the indicated airspeed maintained at 10,000 feet?
• What is the minimum operational history to leave on an MM01?
• What percentage of runway excursions resulted from unstable approaches?
• What is the required visibility condition for accepting visual approaches?
• If the OAT exceeds the full thrust data, what must you do?
• What speed is recommended for descent in alternate scenarios?
• Which of the following could increase the workload of a crew?
• According to safety protocols, any misunderstanding should be resolved when?
• How many crew life vests are onboard the flight deck?
• In light freezing drizzle, when is it safe to take off after holdover time has expired?
• How is an emergency defined in aviation?
• How far away should a PBE be located from each fire extinguisher?
• Which limitation is a requirement regarding tailwind conditions during approaches?
• When should a go-around be executed at or below 1,000'?
• Which of the following is a part of reportable and debriefing events according to the guidelines?
• Under what condition can an aircraft take off with frost present?
• Which of the following symptoms indicates shock?
• What is the minimum rest time required between duty periods?
• Which extinguisher is used for Class A fires?
• After what event does a pre take-off contamination check occur?
• If crew members are on the ground for less than 90 minutes, what can they do?
• What is the primary fuel for a Class B fire?
• What indicates a change in landing minimums during equipment malfunction?
• Which of the following is a requirement for stabilized approaches?
• How many classes of dangerous goods are there?
• What does a stabilized approach refer to in aviation?
• Is dangerous goods (DG) allowed on revenue flights?
• What does NEF stand for?
• Which items should be read back when an emended weight and balance is received?
• In 672 Flight Duty Hours, what is the maximum allowed flying time?
• What is defined as an occurrence involving the incorrect presence of an aircraft, vehicle, or person on a designated landing area?
• N1 must be within what percentage of ACARS data for a full thrust takeoff?
• What additional weight is typically added per person for baggage when exceeding 10 passengers?
• What should be done if the aircraft does not climb at a rate of at least 300 FPM above FL330?
• What does the term "Coffin Corner" refer to?
• What is the number of first aid kits present in a CRJ900?
• What is the minimum rest period a pilot must have within a 168-hour schedule?
• Which of the following is true regarding the use of thrust reversers during operations?
• What is the approximate alertness restoration from a 15-20 minute nap?
• What constitutes the threshold for a runway to be considered contaminated?
• What is the priority action required from crew members during an emergency?
• The actual landing distance is a combination of which of the following segments?
• When receiving paperwork from the gate agent, what items should you expect to include?
• What is the standard weight designated for jump seaters?
• What is the proper action for Class D fire incidents?
• What does a score of 6 indicate on the RCAM Chart?
• Can you ship oxygen or scuba bottles?
• What type of bag is regulated at a maximum weight of 60 lbs?